If you have a weapon that applies a stack of 1% XXXX vulnerability on hit (fire, for example), and the enemy is immune to that damage, does it have no effect? My assumption is that is the case. But if not, and they are temporarily vulnerable to that type of damage, how does the math work? Are they temporarily open to take just 1% damage, or...?
I tried testing a cold vulnerability weapon on the abbot in MoD to find it has no effect, but I wasn't sure if this was a function of him being a purple named enemy or not.
Thanks!