Howdy,
Saw this and it got me thinking.


After a little Googling I found a discussion where one poster responded with:
Wrong

There have been exactly 500 leap days since the Gregorian reform

Also there aren't as many days in the Mayan calender as there is the the one we use today. The Mayans divided there calender in 360 day "years" starting on what we call "August 11, 3114 BCE" and ending exactly 5200 "years" after that.

A date we call:

December 21, 2012.
Now I thought the Julian calendar did in fact contain leap years. In fact it had too many of them hence the need for the Gregorian reform in 1592 (heh go to sleep Thursday night 10/4/1582 wake up Friday morning 10/15/1582). So which guy is correct? Are they both correct but we're comparing apples to oranges?

I is just that curious,
bitkaCK2